RRB NTPC CBT 1 (Graduate and Undergraduate)Paper 2, booklet 1982580

Test booklet
प्रश्न पुस्तिका
Booklet No.
1982580
Series
C

RRB NTPC CBT 1 (Graduate and Undergraduate) Paper 2

Questions
100
Maximum marks
100
Minutes allowed
90

Roll No. assigned when you start

Instructions निर्देश

  1. This booklet has 100 questions in 3 parts: A. General Awareness (40), B. Mathematics (30), C. General Intelligence and Reasoning (30).
  2. You have 90 minutes for the whole paper. The clock starts when you break the seal.
  3. Each question has 4 options and one right answer. A right answer earns 1 mark. A wrong answer costs 0.33. A question left blank scores nothing.
  4. Fill one bubble per question on the answer sheet. Unlike a real sheet, you can clear it and change your mind.

Scripting is off, so this page is a printed paper: answer on paper, then open each question’s working.

Part AGeneral Awareness

40 questions, 1 mark each, 0.33 off for a wrong answer

  1. What is the capital of Estonia?
    Question 1
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Estonia: Tallinn.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  2. International Translation Day is observed on which date?
    Question 2
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    International Translation Day: September 30.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  3. Girish Karnad received the Jnanpith Award in which year?
    Question 3
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Girish Karnad: 1998.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  4. Which of these rivers flows into the Vembanad?
    Question 4
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Vembanad: Periyar River.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  5. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Environment Programme?
    Question 5
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    United Nations Environment Programme: Nairobi.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  6. What is the capital of Manipur?
    Question 6
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Manipur: Imphal.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  7. In which year was the Battle of Khanwa fought?
    Question 7
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Battle of Khanwa: 1527.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  8. Which of these Ramsar sites is in Rajasthan?
    Question 8
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Rajasthan: Kevladev National Park.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  9. Panchet Dam is built on which river?
    Question 9
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Panchet Dam: Damodar River.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  10. Lovlina Borgohain is associated with which sport?
    Question 10
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Lovlina Borgohain: boxing.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  11. Who was the first Chief Justice of India?
    Question 11
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Harilal Jekisundas Kania, from 1950.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  12. Which of these national parks is in Ladakh?
    Question 12
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Ladakh: Hemis National Park.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  13. Where is the headquarters of the Interpol?
    Question 13
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Interpol: Lyon.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  14. Ramappa Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is in which state?
    Question 14
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Ramappa Temple: Telangana.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  15. Which of these was written by Bibhutibhushan Bandyopadhyay?
    Question 15
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Bibhutibhushan Bandyopadhyay: Pather Panchali.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  16. In which year was Ravi Shankar awarded the Bharat Ratna?
    Question 16
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Ravi Shankar: 1999.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  17. Who was the Chief Justice of India throughout 1979?
    Question 17
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Yeshwant Vishnu Chandrachud held the office from 1978 to 1985.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  18. Nokrek National Park is in which state?
    Question 18
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Nokrek National Park: Meghalaya.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  19. What is the currency of Rwanda?
    Question 19
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Rwanda: Rwandan franc.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  20. In which year was Jharkhand formed as a state or union territory in its present form?
    Question 20
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Jharkhand: 2000.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  21. Hyderabad is the capital of which state or union territory?
    Question 21
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Hyderabad: Telangana.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  22. Nikhil Banerjee is known for playing which instrument?
    Question 22
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Nikhil Banerjee: sitar.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  23. Where is the headquarters of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?
    Question 23
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Shanghai Cooperation Organisation: Beijing.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  24. What is the capital of Luxembourg?
    Question 24
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Luxembourg: Luxembourg.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  25. Which element has the symbol V?
    Question 25
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    V is Vanadium.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  26. The Bhavani river flows into which?
    Question 26
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Bhavani River: Kaveri.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  27. Who was the Prime Minister of India throughout 2022?
    Question 27
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Narendra Modi held the office from 2014.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  28. Who was the Vice President of India throughout 1999?
    Question 28
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Krishan Kant held the office from 1997 to 2002.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  29. What is the currency of India?
    Question 29
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    India: Indian rupee.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  30. Which day is observed on June 1?
    Question 30
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    June 1: World Milk Day.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  31. Which of these was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutt?
    Question 31
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Michael Madhusudan Dutt: Meghnad Badh Kavya.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  32. In which year was IRNSS-1A launched?
    Question 32
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    IRNSS-1A: 2013.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  33. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary is in which state?
    Question 33
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary: Karnataka.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  34. Jaipur, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is in which state?
    Question 34
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Jaipur: Rajasthan.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  35. Gir National Park is in which state?
    Question 35
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Gir National Park: Gujarat.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  36. In which year was the Battle of Assaye fought?
    Question 36
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Battle of Assaye: 1803.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  37. What is the atomic number of molybdenum?
    Question 37
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Molybdenum has atomic number 42.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  38. In which year was Agra Fort inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
    Question 38
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Agra Fort: 1983.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  39. Manoj Kumar received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for which year?
    Question 39
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Manoj Kumar: 2015.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

  40. Which of these sportspersons is associated with mountaineering?
    Question 40
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    mountaineering: Tenzing Norgay.

    Source: Wikidata (CC0)

Part BMathematics

30 questions, 1 mark each, 0.33 off for a wrong answer

  1. ₹14,200 is divided among Meera, Arjun and Kavya in the ratio 2 : 5 : 1. What is Arjun’s share?
    Question 41
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Total parts = 2 + 5 + 1 = 8. Arjun gets 5/8 × 14,200 = ₹8,875.

  2. A shopkeeper marks his goods 25% above the cost price and allows a discount of 10%. What is his profit or loss percent?
    Question 42
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Take CP = 100. Marked price = 125. After 10% off: 125 × 90/100 = 112.5. So 12.5% profit.

  3. What is the mean of these numbers: 54, 59, 51, 27, 13, 17, 52?
    Question 43
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Sum 273 ÷ 7 = 39.

  4. What is the average of the first 51 natural numbers?
    Question 44
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Sum = 51 × 52/2, so the average is (51 + 1)/2 = 26.

  5. The population of a town is 75,525. It grows by 20% every year. What will it be after 2 years?
    Question 45
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    75,525 × (1 + 20/100)² = 75,525 × 1.44 = 1,08,756. Growing 20% on 75,525 twice, not 40% once.

  6. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹36,580 in 4 years and to ₹40,120 in 6 years. What is the sum?
    Question 46
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Interest for 2 years = 40,120 − 36,580 = ₹3,540, so ₹1,770 a year. Interest for 4 years = ₹7,080. Sum = 36,580 − 7,080 = ₹29,500.

  7. What is the compound interest on ₹80,000 for 2 years at 4% per annum, compounded annually?
    Question 47
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Amount = 80,000 × (1 + 4/100)2 = ₹86,528. CI = 86,528 − 80,000 = ₹6,528.

  8. A rectangular plot has a perimeter of 160 m and a length of 45 m. What is its area?
    Question 48
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Length + breadth = 160 ÷ 2 = 80, so breadth = 35 m. Area = 45 × 35 = 1,575 m².

  9. A boat covers 44 km downstream in 2 hours and 50 km upstream in 5 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
    Question 49
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Downstream speed = 44 ÷ 2 = 22 km/h; upstream = 50 ÷ 5 = 10 km/h. Boat = (22 + 10) ÷ 2 = 16 km/h.

  10. The incomes of P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 6 and their expenditures are in the ratio 7 : 9. If each saves ₹9,000 a month, what is P’s monthly income?
    Question 50
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Incomes 5x and 6x. (5x − 9,000) : (6x − 9,000) = 7 : 9 gives x = 6,000. P’s income = 5 × 6,000 = ₹30,000.

  11. A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above the cost price and allows a discount of 15%. What is his profit or loss percent?
    Question 51
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Take CP = 100. Marked price = 130. After 15% off: 130 × 85/100 = 110.5. So 10.5% profit.

  12. Pipe A fills a tank in 26 hours; pipe B empties the full tank in 39 hours. If both are opened together on an empty tank, when will it be full?
    Question 52
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Net filling per hour = 1/26 − 1/39 = 1/78. Time = 78 hours.

  13. Simplify: 1⁄2 + 3⁄5 + 2⁄5
    Question 53
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Over the common denominator 20: the sum is 3⁄2. Adding tops and bottoms separately (9/19) is the trap.

  14. If a − b = 2 and ab = 35, what is a³ − b³?
    Question 54
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    a³ − b³ = (a − b)³ + 3ab(a − b) = 8 + 210 = 218.

  15. A scooter runs at 72 km/h. What is its speed in metres per second?
    Question 55
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Multiply by 5/18: 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s.

  16. What is 24% of 600?
    Question 56
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    24% of 600 = 600 × 24/100 = 144.

  17. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 64 years. 6 years ago, the father was 3 times as old as the son. How old is the son now?
    Question 57
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Let the son be s. Then (64 − s − 6) = 3(s − 6), so 76 = 4s and s = 19 years.

  18. The average weight of 12 people goes up by 2.5 kg when a new person takes the place of one who weighs 48 kg. What does the new person weigh?
    Question 58
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    The total rises by 12 × 2.5 = 30 kg, so the new person weighs 48 + 30 = 78 kg.

  19. What is 12.5% of 840?
    Question 59
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    12.5% of 840 = 840 × 12.5/100 = 105.

  20. If cos θ = 21⁄29 and θ is acute, what is sec θ?
    Question 60
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Draw a right triangle with sides 20, 21 and hypotenuse 29 (20² + 21² = 29²). Then sec θ = 29⁄21.

  21. If a + b = 7 and ab = 10, what is a² + b²?
    Question 61
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    a² + b² = (a + b)² − 2ab = 49 − 20 = 29.

  22. Simplify: 36 + 7 × 7 − 12 ÷ 3
    Question 62
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Division and multiplication first: 7 × 7 = 49 and 12 ÷ 3 = 4. Then 36 + 49 − 4 = 81.

  23. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 6 : 1 : 5. What is the largest angle?
    Question 63
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    12 parts make 180°, so one part is 15°. The largest is 6 × 15 = 90°.

  24. What is the unit digit of 2351?
    Question 64
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    The unit digits of the powers of 23 repeat in a cycle of 4: 3, 9, 7, 1. 51 is position 3 in that cycle (51 ÷ 4 leaves 3), so the unit digit is 7.

  25. Ramesh can finish a piece of work in 14 days and Suresh can finish it in 84 days. Working together, how long will they take?
    Question 65
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    In one day they do 1/14 + 1/84 = 1/12 of the work. Time = 14 × 84 ÷ (14 + 84) = 12 days.

  26. A rectangular plot has a perimeter of 166 m and a length of 45 m. What is its area?
    Question 66
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Length + breadth = 166 ÷ 2 = 83, so breadth = 38 m. Area = 45 × 38 = 1,710 m².

  27. What is the unit digit of 957?
    Question 67
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    The unit digits of the powers of 9 repeat in a cycle of 2: 9, 1. 57 is position 1 in that cycle (57 ÷ 2 leaves 1), so the unit digit is 9.

  28. A cylinder has radius 21 cm and height 12 cm. What is its volume? (π = 22/7)
    Question 68
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Volume = πr²h = 22/7 × 21² × 12 = 16,632 cm³.

  29. A train 110 m long crosses a platform 130 m long in 24 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
    Question 69
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    It must cover its own length and the platform: 110 + 130 = 240 m in 24 s, so 10 m/s = 10 × 18/5 = 36 km/h.

  30. 24 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 : 1. How much water must be added to make the ratio 5 : 2?
    Question 70
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Milk = 20 l, water = 4 l. For 5 : 2, water must be 20 × 2/5 = 8 l. Add 8 − 4 = 4 litres.

Part CGeneral Intelligence and Reasoning

30 questions, 1 mark each, 0.33 off for a wrong answer

  1. Lata walks 10 km towards the north. She turns right and walks 7 km. She turns left and walks 14 km. How far is she from the starting point in a straight line?
    Question 71
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Taking east and north as positive: she ends 7 km east and 24 km north of the start. Straight-line distance = √(7² + 24²) = 25 km.

  2. In a certain code, FLOWER is written as IORZHU. How is BREAD written in that code?
    Question 72
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    From FLOWER → IORZHU: each letter moves 3 places forward. Applied to BREAD: EUHDG.

  3. Statements:
    (1) Some clouds are lamps.
    (2) No doors are clouds.

    Conclusions:
    (I) Some lamps are clouds.
    (II) Some clouds are not lamps.

    Take the statements to be true, however odd they sound. Which conclusion follows?
    Question 73
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Conclusion I holds in every diagram the statements allow. Conclusion II need not hold: every one of the clouds may be lamps. So: Only conclusion I follows.

  4. Neha walks 13 km towards the east. She turns left and walks 10 km. She turns left and walks 11 km. She turns left and walks 3 km. Which direction is she facing now?
    Question 74
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Each right turn is a quarter turn clockwise, each left anticlockwise. The last leg runs South.

  5. Which group comes next? DFH, IKM, NPR, ?
    Question 75
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    Inside each group the letters step by 2; each group starts 5 letters after the last (D, I, N). Next: SUW.

  6. 7 : 49 :: 9 : ?
    Question 76
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    49 = 7², the rule n². For 9: 9² = 81.

  7. Statements:
    (1) Some rings are clocks.
    (2) Some clocks are pens.

    Conclusions:
    (I) Some clocks are not rings.
    (II) Some clocks are rings.

    Take the statements to be true, however odd they sound. Which conclusion follows?
    Question 77
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Conclusion I need not hold: every one of the clocks may be rings. Conclusion II holds in every diagram the statements allow. So: Only conclusion II follows.

  8. Which number replaces the question mark? 18, 41, 24, 39, 30, 37, 36, ?
    Question 78
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    The rule: two series alternate: 18, 24, 30 … rising by 6, and 41, 39, 37 … falling by 2. The missing term is 35.

  9. In a certain code, PLANET is written as VGPCNR. How is BOOK written in that code?
    Question 79
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    From PLANET → VGPCNR: the word is written backwards and each letter moves 2 forward. Applied to BOOK: MQQD.

  10. Which number replaces the question mark? 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, ?
    Question 80
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    The rule: the terms are 5², 6², 7² …. The missing term is 100.

  11. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘−’, what is the value of 25 ÷ 3 × 6 − 18 + 4?
    Question 81
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Replace the signs: 25 − 3 + 6 × 18 ÷ 4. Division and multiplication first, then addition and subtraction: 49.

  12. 7 : 336 :: 4 : ?
    Question 82
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    336 = 7³ − 7, the rule n³ − n. For 4: 4³ − 4 = 60.

  13. DFH : EGI :: LNP : ?
    Question 83
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    Each letter of DFH moves 1 forward to give EGI. Doing the same to LNP gives MOQ.

  14. 7 : 343 :: 10 : ?
    Question 84
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    343 = 7³, the rule n³. For 10: 10³ = 1,000.

  15. Which one does not belong with the others?
    Question 85
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    196, 64, 289 are perfect squares; 357 is not. The odd one is 357.

  16. Which one does not belong with the others?
    Question 86
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    125, 27, 1000 are cubes; 144 is a square, not a cube. The odd one is 144.

  17. Today is Saturday. What day of the week will it be 156 days from today?
    Question 87
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    156 ÷ 7 leaves 2. 2 days on from Saturday is Monday.

  18. Which one does not belong with the others?
    Question 88
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    In the others the second number is n³ of the first; 9 : 730 breaks it. The odd one is 9 : 730.

  19. In a queue, Ravi is 16th from the front and Dev is 28th from the front. How many people stand between them?
    Question 89
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Between positions 16 and 28 there are 28 − 16 − 1 = 11 people.

  20. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock are the hands of a clock together?
    Question 90
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    The minute hand gains 11/2° a minute and must gain 120°. Time = 120 ÷ 5.5 = 60 × 4/11 = 219⁄11 minutes past 4.

  21. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, Tarun said, ‘She is the wife of my father’s only son.’ How is the woman related to Tarun?
    Question 91
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    My father’s only son is me. So the woman is Tarun’s wife.

  22. Which number replaces the question mark? 13, 17, ?, 42, 67, 103
    Question 92
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    The rule: the differences are squares: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49. The missing term is 26.

  23. Directions for questions 93 to 93

    Five friends, Arun, Bina, Chetan, Divya and Esha, sit in a row facing north. Arun and Divya sit next to each other. Exactly one person sits between Bina and Chetan. Chetan sits third to the left of Arun.
  24. Who sits immediately to the right of Chetan?
    Question 93
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Only one order fits every clue, from the left: Chetan, Esha, Bina, Arun, Divya. Esha.

  25. Which one does not belong with the others?
    Question 94
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    In the others the letters are 3 apart (ADG); in MPT the last gap is 4. The odd one is MPT.

  26. V is the mother of F. F is the husband of E. How is V related to E?
    Question 95
    Answer and working

    Answer A

    Follow the links out from E: F is E’s husband; V is F’s mother. So V is E’s mother-in-law.

  27. In the English alphabet, which letter is 4th to the left of the 10th letter from the right?
    Question 96
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    The 10th letter from the right is Q (position 17). 4 places to the left: position 13, which is M.

  28. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what is the value of 10 × 2 + 10 − 10 ÷ 3?
    Question 97
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Replace the signs: 10 − 2 × 10 ÷ 10 + 3. Division and multiplication first, then addition and subtraction: 11.

  29. Which group comes next? GHI, LMN, QRS, ?
    Question 98
    Answer and working

    Answer B

    Inside each group the letters step by 1; each group starts 5 letters after the last (G, L, Q). Next: VWX.

  30. In a certain code, LADDER is written as OZWWVI. How is GREEN written in that code?
    Question 99
    Answer and working

    Answer D

    From LADDER → OZWWVI: each letter is replaced by its opposite in the alphabet (A ↔ Z, B ↔ Y …). Applied to GREEN: TIVVM.

  31. In a certain code, PILLOW is written as SLOORZ. How is GLASS written in that code?
    Question 100
    Answer and working

    Answer C

    From PILLOW → SLOORZ: each letter moves 3 places forward. Applied to GLASS: JODVV.